Edip Yuksel vs. Ali Sina
Round VII -27
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As
for your claim that "no scholar has understood them as
metaphors" is simply false. Though my understanding of the
Quran does not depend on this scholar or that scholar or the number
of their votes, I will give some examples to demonstrate that you
frequently make false claims with hyperbolic pontifications.
For instance, Muhammad Asad, in his renowned
translation of the Quran, The Message, makes the following comments
on verse 7:166:
According
to Zamakhshari and Razf, the expression "We said unto
them" is here synonymous with "We decreed with' regard to
them" - God's "saying" being in this case a metonym
for a manifestation of His will. As for the substance of God's
decree, "Be as apes despicable", the famous tabi'i Mujahid
explain it thus: "[Only] their hearts were transformed, that
is, they were not [really] transformed into apes: this is but a
metaphor (mathai) coined by God with regard to them, similar to the
metaphor of `the ass carrying books' [62: 5]" (Tabari, in his
commentary on 2 : 65; also Mandr I, 343; VI, 448; and IX, 379). A
similar explanation is given by Raghib. It should be borne in mind
that the expression "like an ape" is often used in
classical Arabic to describe a person who is unable to restrain his
gross appetites or passions. |
Obviously many Muslims realized this is
plain nonsense and did their best to explain it off, but the text is
clear. The metaphor of ass carrying book is a clear metaphor and the verse
saying Jews were transformed into apes and swine are clearly not
metaphors. Expression “like an ape” is used in all languages and it is
clearly a derogatory comparison but saying they were transformed into apes
is a different thing.
I
did not know that you were also illiterate, more accurately a
selective illiterate, since in my previous answer I made my case
clear from the Quran that UMMY means gentile, not illiterate. In
case you missed by accident, here is a more detailed argument on
this case. I will copy and paste from the samples of our upcoming
Reformist Translation of the Quran. You do not have the right for
complaining from my copying and pasting, since I do not need to
re-invent the same medicine for the same allergy: |
No
I certainly did not miss your statement. Nonetheless I quoted the verse 2:78
were Muhammad calls the Jews ummayoon ْ
أُمِّيُّونَ.
Are you telling me that Muhammad thought that Jews were gentiles?
The Arabic word "ummy," however,
describes people who are not Jewish or Christian. The meaning of
this word, which occurs six times in the Quran, has nevertheless
been rendered as "one who can neither read nor write."
This deliberate manipulation by Muslim scholars has become widely
accepted as the true meaning of the word. For example Yusuf Ali, in
his translation, follows this pattern:
"... So believe in God and His
Apostle, the unlettered Prophet,...."
Marmaduke Pickthall's translation also
reflects the same manipulation:
"... So believe in Allah and His
messenger, the prophet who can neither read nor write,..."
Our translation of 7:158: "… So
you shall believe in God and His messenger, the Gentile
prophet…" (7:158)
COMMENTARY ON 7:158
The
Quran itself provides guidance for the true meaning of "ummy".
If we reflect on the verse 3:20 below we will easily understand that
"ummy" does not mean an illiterate person:
And say to those who received the
scripture, as well as those who did not receive any scripture (ummyyeen)...
(3:20)
In this verse the word "ummy"
describes Meccan idol worshipers. It is obvious that "ummy"
does not mean illiterate because it has been used as the counterpart
of the people of the scripture. If the verse was " ... And say
to those who are literate and illiterate", then the orthodox
translation of "ummy" would be correct. According to the
verse 3:20 the people of Arab peninsula were two main groups:
1. The people of the scripture, i.e., Jews
and Christians.
3. Gentiles, who were neither Jewish nor
Christian.
If the people who were neither Jews nor
Christians were called "ummyyeen" (3:20; 3:75), then the
meaning of "ummy" is very clear. As a matter of fact, the
verse 3:75 clarifies its meaning as Gentile.
Mecca
was the cultural center of the Arabs in the
7th century. Poetry competitions were being held there. It is a
historical fact that Meccans were not familiar with the Bible, thus
they were gentiles. So the verse 62:2 describes Meccan people by the
word "ummyyeen":
"He is the One who sent to the
Gentiles (ummyyeen) a messenger from among them, to recite to them
His revelations, purify them, and teach them the scripture and
wisdom. Before this, they had gone far astray." (62:2)
The disbelievers claimed that Muhammad was
quoting verses from the Old and New Testaments (25:5; 68:15). The
verse below refutes their accusation and gives the answer:
"You did not read any previous
scriptures, nor did you write them with your hand. In that case, the
objectors would have had reason to harbor doubts." (29:4
8) border=0 v:shapes="_x0000_i1025">
This verse tells us that Muhammad did not
read nor write previous scriptures. The word "min qablihi"
(previous ) suggests that Muhammad did read and write the final
scripture.
Muhammad was a literate gentile (ummy)
After this examination on the true meaning
of the word "ummy", here are the reasons and proofs for
the fact that Muhammad was a literate Gentile:
• To magnify the miraculous aspect of the
Quran, religious people thought that the story of illiteracy would
be alluring.
• The producer(s) of the illiteracy story
found it relatively easy to change the meaning of "ummy."
Nevertheless, the word appears throughout the Quran, and
consistently means "Gentile" (2:78; 3:20; 3:75; 62:2). In
verses 3:20 and 3:75, the Quran uses the word "ummy" as
the counterpart of the "ehlil kitab" ("People of the
Book," a phrase that in both of these verses equates with
"Jews and Christians").
• The Quran describes Meccan people with
the word "ummyyeen" (Gentiles). (62:2). According to the
orthodox claim, all Meccan people must have been illiterate. Why
then were the poems of pre-Islamic Meccan poets hung on the walls of
the Ka'ba (the ancient monotheistic shrine of Abraham)?
• The Arabs of the 7th century were using
letters as numbers. This alphabetical numbering system is called
"Abjad." The merchants of those days had to know the
letters of the alphabet to record their accounts! If Muhammad was a
successful international merchant, as is universally accepted, then
he most probably knew this numbering system. The Arabs stopped using
the "Abjad" system in the 9th century when they took
"Arabic numbers" from
India
.
• The different spelling of the word
"bism" in the beginning of the Basmalah and in the first
verse of chapter 96 is one of the many evidences supporting literacy
of Muhammad. It is not reasonable for an illiterate to dictate two
different spellings of the same word which is pronounced the same.
• The very first revelation from the Angel
Gabriel was, Muslims believe, "Read!" And the first five
verses of that revelation encourage reading and writing (96:1-5).
The second revelation was "The pen and writing" (68:1).
These facts compel some questions that orthodox scholarship would
rather avoid. Does God command an illiterate man to
"read"? If so, could Muhammad read after Gabriel's
instruction to do so? The story told in Hadith books about the first
revelation asserting that Muhammad could read only after three
trials ending by an angelic "squeeze" contradicts the
other stories claiming that Muhammad died as an illiterate!
• Traditional history books accept that
Muhammad dictated the Quran and controlled its recording. Even if we
accept that Muhammad did not know how to read or write before
revelation of the Quran, we cannot claim that he preserved this
illiteracy during the 23 years while he was dictating the Quran! Let
us accept, for the sake of argument, that Muhammad was illiterate
before the revelation of the Quran. Why then did he insist on
staying illiterate for 23 years after the first revelation:
"Read !"? Did he not obey his Lord's command? Did he
receive another command forbidding him from reading and writing?
• Was it so difficult for Muhammad to
learn to read and write? If a person still does not learn to read
and write after 23 years of careful dictation of a book, what kind
of intellect is that?
• If Muhammad was encouraging his
followers to read and write (which he did when he recited 2:44 to
them), then why should he have excluded himself?
Muslim scholars, who are in disagreement on
a bewildering array of subjects, somehow have managed to agree on
the story of Muhammad's illiteracy. Perhaps the glorification of
illiteracy, using it as a positive attribute of a worshipped figure,
is one of the causes of the high current level illiteracy in Muslim
communities. |
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